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by Sin » Mon Dec 12, 2005 7:49 pm
Is this correct?
Ln(e^x) = 1
and
e^ln(x) = 0
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Sin
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by ventsyv » Mon Dec 12, 2005 8:40 pm
No. How can x^y be 0 if x!=0 to begin with ?
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ventsyv
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by Sin » Mon Dec 12, 2005 9:11 pm
I'm sorry I made a typo and the question was incorrect to begin with.
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Sin
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by Sin » Mon Dec 12, 2005 9:23 pm
What I meant to ask (If I was not so high when I posted the question the first time) is that if this is correct:
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The derivative of e^(lnx + pi) = e^ pi
Does the Lnx cancel out?
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Sin
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by t i l e x » Mon Dec 12, 2005 9:47 pm
No.
(e^(ln x + pi)) ' = (e^(ln x + pi))(1/x) = (e^(ln x + pi))/x
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t i l e x
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by Jimbo » Mon Dec 12, 2005 10:09 pm
e^(ln(x) + pi) = (e^(ln(x)))(e^pi) = x*e^pi => d/dx (e^(ln(x) + pi)) = e^pi
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Jimbo
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by Sin » Tue Dec 13, 2005 1:01 pm
Jimbo wrote:e^(ln(x) + pi) = (e^(ln(x)))(e^pi) = x*e^pi => d/dx (e^(ln(x) + pi)) = e^pi
Twas what I thought.
Thanks both of you.
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Sin
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